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"Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος." Prin is a preposition, so what is its object?  Is Ap' ola prin a phrase by itself?

I don't get the grammar of this sentence. I understand it as "Before all things, the Word existed." But if that is so, why is it "Απ’ όλα πριν" and not "πριν απ’ όλα"?
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"Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος." is a modern Greek version of the phrase "Εν αρχή ην ο λόγος", which is the beginning of John 1, from the Bible.  A much better phrase would be "Aρχικά υπήρχε ο Λόγος".

“πριν” is an adverb of time, not a preposition.

In my opinion, “Λόγος” is wrongly translated into “word” here.  The meaning of “Λόγος” was logic/reason.  For more information on this you would need to consult a theologist.

Back to your phrase "Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος.", let’s look at the syntax.

“Απ’ όλα πριν” (meaning “before everything”), is a definition of time.  “πριν απ’ όλα” is another phrase with exactly the same meaning.  Actually the latter phrase is of more typical syntax.

“υπήρχε” (existed) is a verb, past tense of “υπάρχω” (exist).

“ο Λόγος” is the subject, not the object in the phrase.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Vasiliki Baskou, Instructor/Director, https://learn-greek-online.com.

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Λόγος in this verse means exactly "the Word" of God, that is to say Jesus Christ. :)
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