0 votes
87 views
"Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος." Prin is a preposition, so what is its object?  Is Ap' ola prin a phrase by itself?

I don't get the grammar of this sentence. I understand it as "Before all things, the Word existed." But if that is so, why is it "Απ’ όλα πριν" and not "πριν απ’ όλα"?
by (120 points)

1 Answer

0 votes

"Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος." is a modern Greek version of the phrase "Εν αρχή ην ο λόγος", which is the beginning of John 1, from the Bible.  A much better phrase would be "Aρχικά υπήρχε ο Λόγος".

“πριν” is an adverb of time, not a preposition.

In my opinion, “Λόγος” is wrongly translated into “word” here.  The meaning of “Λόγος” was logic/reason.  For more information on this you would need to consult a theologist.

Back to your phrase "Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος.", let’s look at the syntax.

“Απ’ όλα πριν” (meaning “before everything”), is a definition of time.  “πριν απ’ όλα” is another phrase with exactly the same meaning.  Actually the latter phrase is of more typical syntax.

“υπήρχε” (existed) is a verb, past tense of “υπάρχω” (exist).

“ο Λόγος” is the subject, not the object in the phrase.

by (38.1k points)
edited by
Λόγος in this verse means exactly "the Word" of God, that is to say Jesus Christ. :)
...